I was just checking my tax declaration and found that the dividends do not match up with the IB Report, so I started investigating. Turned out the automatic values for SPMCHA (UBS ETF SPI Mid) were to small. Then I saw that IB had listed 2 dividend payments in the same day and the software for some reason only counts one.
Now I am wondering, why were there 2 dividend payments in the same day and why does the tax software only take the first one(it does list both in the details)?
According to IB I got paid for both so it might actually be a bug in the software.
This is because on 08.09.2017 you got two types of payment.
A payment of CHF 0.72 per share which is the payment of a capital gain, which is not taxable in Switzerland and on which there is no withholding tax of 35%.
A payment of CHF 1.25 per share which is an income, has the 35% withholding tax refundable if you fill your tax declaration.
The website https://www.ictax.admin.ch/extern/fr.html#/security/CH0130595124/20171231
tells you all the details about it.
The dividend paid with the profit obtained from capital gain are not taxable since the last modification of the tax system for companies in Switzerland, 2 or 3 years ago. This modification had been widely criticized because it gave advantages to some billionaires of this country. Once the law is there it is not forbidden to the small investors to take advantage of it.
Nice, I did not know about that tax law. So basically one dividend is taxable and the other is not, is this what the 10 and 11 mean?
With that my withholding taxes seem to add up and even the DA1 does not seem the be remotely as much of a PITA as I imagined it being, of course that still depends on if it actually works.
I work in banking (but by no means an expert) and what dividend payout is, is a type of corporate actions. There are many types of corporate actions, which trigger different events.
Cool, it makes sense that capital gains are not taxed in CH. But why would a company pay out a part of their capital gains to the shareholders? I mean, a shareholder can convert capital gains into cash by selling some shares. So why does a company pay out capital gains and not just buyback their shares from the market? The end effect would be the same: they spend cash (reduce their capital), but they reduced the number of outstanding shares, so the the share price rises.
The numbers 10 and 11 are the number of the coupon (Cp.) that is detached to pay for the dividend. In 2016 it was 8 and 9.
The trick is that when the company has some capital gain and some operational profit the company is free to affect the capital gain to pay the shareholders and the operational profit to R&D, acquisition or expansion. Shares buy back is also an option but why do it when distributing capital gain is not taxable. Distribution of capital gain is common with financial societies (UBSG, CSGN, ZURN) but very seldom with industrial or pharmaceutical (NESN, NOVN, ROG) as they make money only with operational profit.