Thanks @hedgehog. However I am a bit confused since my understanding is that it contradicts your answer just above. I understood that NAV value will change, and therefore wouldn’t it be something like new share value = old share value + dividend, hence making the issue with not having full shares irrelevant?
Could you detail the cash pile story? Is it that the dividend is not paid to the investor? If there is quaterly payment of a dividend, you then need quite a lot of money to be able to purchase full shares.